- #1
sokrates
- 483
- 2
I am trying to bridge a gap between Maxwell equations and Lorentz force. I know that they are not independent and in theory, one could be derived from the other but I cannot see that.
More physics oriented people prefer the Lorentz force because it describes the effect of B and E as a final force on the particle, which is good.
But all that should also be captured by Maxwell's set. And in classical EM theory, they don't even mention Lorentz force.
Could anyone show a theoretical derivation or provide some remarks on this issue?
many thanks,
More physics oriented people prefer the Lorentz force because it describes the effect of B and E as a final force on the particle, which is good.
But all that should also be captured by Maxwell's set. And in classical EM theory, they don't even mention Lorentz force.
Could anyone show a theoretical derivation or provide some remarks on this issue?
many thanks,