- #1
crazycyrus
- 3
- 0
Hey Folks
I have rather a silly doubt i guess...
It goes like this
Consider a disc rotating about a fixed axis with constant angular velocity. Which means it has no angular acceleration ie it must be 0. Now since Torque=(moment of inertia)*(angular acceleration). hence the torque acting on the disc must be zero.
But i have come across situations where torque comes into the picture while calculating the power produced by say a Turbine(rotating with a constant angular velocity) . where Power=(torque)*(angular velocity)...?? Why is it so? isn't the torque 0 on circular bodies rotating with constant angular velocity?
I have rather a silly doubt i guess...
It goes like this
Consider a disc rotating about a fixed axis with constant angular velocity. Which means it has no angular acceleration ie it must be 0. Now since Torque=(moment of inertia)*(angular acceleration). hence the torque acting on the disc must be zero.
But i have come across situations where torque comes into the picture while calculating the power produced by say a Turbine(rotating with a constant angular velocity) . where Power=(torque)*(angular velocity)...?? Why is it so? isn't the torque 0 on circular bodies rotating with constant angular velocity?