Series Expansion for Inverse Laplace Transform of Irrational Functions

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The discussion focuses on the challenges of expressing irrational functions in the form of a transfer function suitable for inverse Laplace transforms. The user successfully demonstrates the method for rational functions but struggles with irrational functions like s^(-3/2) and e^(-√s)/s, which do not meet the criteria for regularity at infinity. The conversation highlights the need for alternative approaches, such as using integral forms for evaluation, since standard methods do not apply. There is also clarification sought regarding discrepancies in inverse transform signs and integral limits. The user plans to explore a modified form of F(s) to address these issues and intends to return for further assistance.
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I'm trying to work something on inverse Laplace transform. I need to express a transfer function F(s) to the form
F(s)=\frac{s^{-1} (a_0 + a_1s^{-1} + a_2s^{-2}+ ... }{b_0 + b_1s^{-1} + b_2s^{-2}+ ... }

I can easily do it for rational function e.g.
\frac{s^3+2s^2+3s+1}{s+4}= \frac{s^{-1} (1+2s^{-1}+3s^{-2}+s^{-3})}{s^{-3}+4s^{-4}}

for some indicial e.g
\frac{1}{\sqrt{s^2+s}}=\frac{1}{s}(1+s^{-1})^{-1/2}
Expand using the binomial theorem.

My problem is how to express irrational functions such as s-3/2 or
\frac{e^{-\sqrt{s}}}{s}
to the form of F(s).
 
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F(s) is regular at infinity (in the sense of complex variables) but neither s^{-3/2} nor e^{-\sqrt{s}}/s is.
 
That is an interesting observation that you make. If you could please explain more what regular at infinity means. I'm do not know much about complex variables theory. That's why I want to avoid dealing with Bromwich integral.

My idea is to repeatedly use
L^{-1} { \frac{F(s)}{s} }=\int_0^t f(t) dt
for evaluating inverse transform.

From Laplace transform table I know that s^{-3/2} and e^{-2\sqrt{s}}/s can be inverted. That's why I expect the functions could be express as F(s)
 
OK, the function

F(s)=\frac{s^{-1} (a_0 + a_1s^{-1} + a_2s^{-2}+ ... }{b_0 + b_1s^{-1} + b_2s^{-2}+ ... }

has the property that s^kF(s) converges to a finite nonzero limit as s \to \infty for some integer k . Neither of the two functions in question has that property.
 
There is no standart way for those transforms. You have to proceed from the integral form:
\frac{1}{2\pi}PV \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{exp(st)s^{-3/2}ds}=\frac{1}{2\pi}2\sqrt{t}\int_{0}^{\infty}{exp(z)z^{-1/2-1}dz}=2\sqrt{t}\frac{1}{2\pi}\Gamma[-1/2]=-2\sqrt{\frac{t}{\pi}}
(for t>0)
 
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Actually I'm trying to solve pde not inverse Laplace transform per se. You know after we transform the pde wrt time and solve the transformed ode in s-domain, we usually obtain quite complicated F(s). It is this F(s) that I want to invert numerically.

But from what have you have shown, may be I can learned something from it. Just need further clarification. Why is your inverse transform for s-3/2 has a negative sign. The entry http://www.vibrationdata.com/Laplace.htm" has no such sign. And why is your integral form different from entry 1.2 of the table. Where has the integration end limit c+i\infty gone?
 
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g_edgar said:
OK, the function

F(s) has the property that s^kF(s) converges to a finite nonzero limit as s \to \infty for some integer k . Neither of the two functions in question has that property.

So the converse statement is not true for those cases. Thanks g_edgar. I have to sort out this first. May be I will change the form to

F(s)=\frac{s^{-1} (a_0 + a_1s^{-0.5} + a_2s^{-1}+ ... }{b_0 + b_1s^{-1} + b_2s^{-2}+ ... }

I will try to figure out how to handle this case and come back again if I have a problem.
 
gato_ said:
There is no standart way for those transforms. You have to proceed from the integral form:
\frac{1}{2\pi}PV \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{exp(st)s^{-3/2}ds}=\frac{1}{2\pi}2\sqrt{t}\int_{0}^{\infty}{exp(z)z^{-1/2-1}dz}=2\sqrt{t}\frac{1}{2\pi}\Gamma[-1/2]=-2\sqrt{\frac{t}{\pi}}
(for t>0)

you are right abount the factor in the limits of the integral (missed another i in the denominator ). The difference in sign is probably because i chose the wrong contour
 
Apparently it is easier to prove the converse, I am not sure about the inversion formula. Now,
\int_{0}^{\infty}t^{\nu}e^{-st}dt=\frac{1}{\nu+1}\int_{0}^{\infty}z^{\nu}e^{-z}dz=\frac{\Gamma(\nu+1)}{s^{\nu+1}}
The correct form of the integral I posted previously is then an alternative definition for \Gamma:
\frac{1}{\Gamma(\nu+1)}=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{c-i\infty}^{c+i\infty}\frac{e^{s}}{s^{\nu+1}}
Which I didn't kow
 

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