Are the following two derivatives same?

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In summary, the derivatives f_{xy} and f_{yx} are equal if they exist and are continuous. This is known as the "equality of mixed partial derivatives" or Clairaut's theorem. Additionally, if D_2D_1f exists and is continuous at a point, then D_1D_2f also exists at that point and the two are equal.
  • #1
sgsawant
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1. fxy
2. fyx


Are the above 2 derivatives equal, in general. Please explain if you know the answer.

Regards,

-sgsawant
 
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  • #2
Yes, in general if these two derivatives exist and are continuous, then they are equal. This is called "equality of mixed partial derivatives". I have also seen it called Clairaut's theorem, although supposedly it was first proved by Euler (like so much of the rest of mathematics).
 
  • #3
As long as [itex]f_{xy}[/itex] and [itex]f_{yx}[/itex] are continuous in some neighborhood of a point, then, at that point, they are equal.
 
  • #4
Even better:

Let U in R^2 be open, [itex]f:U\to\matbb{R}[/itex] partial differentiable w.r.t. both variables, and [itex]D_1f[/itex] partial differentiable w.r.t the second variable. Suppose further that (x,y) is in V, and [itex]D_2D_1f[/itex] is continuous at (x,y). Then [itex]D_2f[/itex] is partial differentiable w.r.t the first variable at (x,y), and

[tex]D_1D_2f(x,y)=D_2D_1f(x,y)[/tex].

i.e. we only need [itex]D_2D_1f[/itex] to exist and be continuous at some point in the interioir, this already implies that [itex]D_1D_2f[/itex] exists at that point and the two are equal.
 
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  • #5


I can say that the two derivatives, fxy and fyx, are not necessarily the same. In general, the order in which derivatives are taken can affect the result. This is known as the "order of differentiation" and it is an important concept in calculus.

To understand this concept, let's consider an example where f(x) = x^2. The first derivative of f(x) is 2x, and the second derivative is 2. Now, if we take the derivative of f(x) twice in a different order, we get:

1. fxy = (2x)' = 2
2. fyx = (x^2)' = 2x

As you can see, the two derivatives are not the same. In the first case, we took the derivative with respect to y first, and then with respect to x. In the second case, we took the derivative with respect to x first, and then with respect to y.

This example shows that the order of differentiation matters. In general, if a function has continuous second derivatives, then the mixed partial derivatives (like fxy and fyx) are equal. However, if the second derivatives are not continuous, then the mixed partial derivatives may not be equal.

In conclusion, the two derivatives, fxy and fyx, are not necessarily the same. The order in which derivatives are taken can affect the result, and this is an important concept to keep in mind when working with derivatives.
 

FAQ: Are the following two derivatives same?

Are the following two derivatives equivalent?

The answer depends on the context. If the derivatives are of the same function and have the same value at a specific point, then they are equivalent. However, if the derivatives are of different functions, they may not be equivalent.

How do you determine if two derivatives are the same?

To determine if two derivatives are the same, you need to compare their expressions. If the expressions are exactly the same, then the derivatives are the same. However, if they differ in any way, the derivatives are not the same.

Can two derivatives have the same value at a specific point, but still be different?

Yes, two derivatives can have the same value at a specific point and still be different. This is because the value of a derivative at a point only shows the instantaneous rate of change at that point, but the overall shape and behavior of the functions may be different.

What is the significance of having the same derivatives?

Having the same derivatives indicates that the functions have the same rate of change at every point. This means that the functions have similar behavior, although they may not be the same function. It can also be useful in solving equations and finding critical points.

Can two functions have the same derivatives for all values?

Yes, two functions can have the same derivatives for all values. In fact, this is the case for functions that differ only by a constant term. These functions are called antiderivatives or indefinite integrals of each other.

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