- #1
Low-Q
Gold Member
- 284
- 9
I have had a discussion with some friends who is interesting in all sort of things of physics and experiments. We are interesting in energy research particulary, and looks for alternative energy sources that is "free of use", or at some degree an independent energy source.
We have been discussing heat pumps, and heat engines. And I know it has been discussed here as well. My friends and I do know that energy MUST be conserved. There is NO such thing as over unity. But still we do discuss the potential in a heat engine that is assisted by a heat pump.
What I have been told at physicsforums.com is that a heat pump with high COP, does work very bad as a heat engine - I'm told here that there is a reversed relationship between the COP number as a heat pump, and efficiency as a heat engine. So we can agree that using two identical heat pumps, where one of them is used as a heat engine, powered by the other heat pump, is not going to work - not even without loss.
However, we have been discussing back and forth wether it is possible to use an efficient heat engine to power the pump of a high COP heat pump.
I have compared this particular experiment with a water turbine that is harvesting the potential of the hight of a dam. The dam is continiously supplied with water from the river. The river itself is inefficient as power supply, so the dam is made to increase the level of water.
I think that the heat pump is doing something similar with the heat in the air. The pump has a cold and warm side when it is running, that is compared with the hight of a dam - one high and one low level which contains the potential energy in the water.
If now the heat engine is compared with the turbine in the hydro power plant, it harvest the potential difference, NOT between the cold and hot side of the heat pump, but between the hot OR cold side, and the surrounding air. The heat pump either supply the heat engine with high temperature which is doing work as it cools down to surrounding temperature, OR the heat pump takes away heat from the heat engine, and do work as the temperature rise up to surrounding temperature.
I would like to quote one of the people I'm discussing this with. He had (to me) a good point:
"Why wouldn't this work?
A heat engine converts heat into work, Right?
If, just for the sake of argument, or a place to start as an example, you have a very efficient heat engine that can convert 70% of the heat delivered to it into useful work output with 30% waste heat and a Heat Pump with a COP of 3 or higher.
The heat pump can remove 3 times more waste heat from the engine than the energy required to run the heat pump. (It can remove the 30% waste heat with just 10% of the heat engines 70% work output).
That leaves 60% work output from the heat engine to be used for other purposes such as generating electricity.
If the heat engine is running directly from ambient heat, then the heat pump is not needed as a source of heat/energy to run the engine. All it has to do is remove the waste heat not converted into work by the engine.
If you had an engine only 40% efficient leaving 60% waste heat to be removed, you would still only need 20% of the work output to remove the waste heat and have 20% left over for the production of electricity.
Heat pumps can have a COP of much grater than 3. Some are as high as 10.
And please say something other than it violates the second law of thermodynamics."
Do the sceptics to free energy ASSUME this particular setup will not work, because it fights all common sense of what is understood as violation of physics?
Vidar
We have been discussing heat pumps, and heat engines. And I know it has been discussed here as well. My friends and I do know that energy MUST be conserved. There is NO such thing as over unity. But still we do discuss the potential in a heat engine that is assisted by a heat pump.
What I have been told at physicsforums.com is that a heat pump with high COP, does work very bad as a heat engine - I'm told here that there is a reversed relationship between the COP number as a heat pump, and efficiency as a heat engine. So we can agree that using two identical heat pumps, where one of them is used as a heat engine, powered by the other heat pump, is not going to work - not even without loss.
However, we have been discussing back and forth wether it is possible to use an efficient heat engine to power the pump of a high COP heat pump.
I have compared this particular experiment with a water turbine that is harvesting the potential of the hight of a dam. The dam is continiously supplied with water from the river. The river itself is inefficient as power supply, so the dam is made to increase the level of water.
I think that the heat pump is doing something similar with the heat in the air. The pump has a cold and warm side when it is running, that is compared with the hight of a dam - one high and one low level which contains the potential energy in the water.
If now the heat engine is compared with the turbine in the hydro power plant, it harvest the potential difference, NOT between the cold and hot side of the heat pump, but between the hot OR cold side, and the surrounding air. The heat pump either supply the heat engine with high temperature which is doing work as it cools down to surrounding temperature, OR the heat pump takes away heat from the heat engine, and do work as the temperature rise up to surrounding temperature.
I would like to quote one of the people I'm discussing this with. He had (to me) a good point:
"Why wouldn't this work?
A heat engine converts heat into work, Right?
If, just for the sake of argument, or a place to start as an example, you have a very efficient heat engine that can convert 70% of the heat delivered to it into useful work output with 30% waste heat and a Heat Pump with a COP of 3 or higher.
The heat pump can remove 3 times more waste heat from the engine than the energy required to run the heat pump. (It can remove the 30% waste heat with just 10% of the heat engines 70% work output).
That leaves 60% work output from the heat engine to be used for other purposes such as generating electricity.
If the heat engine is running directly from ambient heat, then the heat pump is not needed as a source of heat/energy to run the engine. All it has to do is remove the waste heat not converted into work by the engine.
If you had an engine only 40% efficient leaving 60% waste heat to be removed, you would still only need 20% of the work output to remove the waste heat and have 20% left over for the production of electricity.
Heat pumps can have a COP of much grater than 3. Some are as high as 10.
And please say something other than it violates the second law of thermodynamics."
Do the sceptics to free energy ASSUME this particular setup will not work, because it fights all common sense of what is understood as violation of physics?
Vidar