- #36
fanieh
- 274
- 12
ohwilleke said:The example given is a horrible one, because it poses the question as a question of probability. But, when it comes to the fundamental constants of nature, probability is not an appropriate way to frame the question.
"The Higgs mechanism gives mass to some fundamental particles, but not others. It interacts strongly with W and Z bosons, making them massive. But it does not interact with particles of light, leaving them massless."
This has a pretty obvious explanation. Fundamental particles that interact via the weak force have mass; fundamental particles that do not interact via the weak force do not. The Higgs field is deeply and fundamentally related to the weak force in electroweak unification, so this is no surprise.
Likewise, the question of whether there is one Higgs or more is an empirical one.
But, the fact that all of the constants of the SM interact in such a way that the Higgs mass arising from those interactions is exactly 125.___ GeV is a "so what?", not a problem. Because, there aren't a host of possible probable values for all of the SM constants only one set of which interacts just so. There is just one possible value for each of these constants and this happens to work.
I think that there are more useful ways to think about how the Higgs mass gets the value that it does than the conventional formulation in which it seems mysterious. For example, the sum of the square of the fundamental boson masses is almost exactly half of the square of the Higgs vev (which in turn is basically a function of the weak force coupling constant). Likewise, the sum of the square of the fundamental fermion masses is almost exactly the square of the Higgs vev, implying a balance between the fermions and the bosons.
In that frame of analysis, the Higgs mass has the mass it does in order to make the boson side of the contributions to the Higgs vev add up, and the top quark has the mass it does in order to make the fermion side of the contributions to the Higgs vev add up, and the Higgs vev has the value it does because of the magnitude of the weak force coupling constant. Not terribly mysterious.
More importantly, whether this particular example has a true and correct physical basis or not, the point is that if you are looking at the world from a perspective that makes the world look "unnatural", or "fine tuned" or like a "problem" you are probably looking at the universe from the wrong perspective and looking at the universe from another perspective will probably make it look like it makes sense (although there are absolute no guarantees of this. It's right in the user's manual. Life is not required to be fair or easy to understand, and neither is Nature. What, you mean they threw out your user's manual when you were born? Tough luck for you.)
Similarly, there is a heuristic argument for why the CP violation parameter theta of the strong force should be exactly zero, rather than of on the order of one, as "strong CP problem" advocates suggest. This is because CP violation calls for a broken time reversal symmetry. And, if you take the perspective of a massless gluon or massless photon, the carrier boson does not experience time, so it shouldn't know the difference between going forward in time and going backward in time. In contrast, the W boson which is massive, does experience time, so it knows the difference between going forward in time and going backward in time, and it therefore can implement a CP violation.
Again, the point is not that this heuristic answer really is the true and correct solution to the strong CP problem. Maybe it is, maybe it isn't. But, if you are looking at the problem from a perspective that makes the laws of nature look like a problem, or unnatural or finely tuned, then you are probably looking at the problem from the wrong perspective anyway, because the actual value of a physical constant is incapable of being a problem or being unnatural or being fine tuned. It simply is.
I think you simply misunderstand it. The Hierarchy Problem of the Higgs is not why it has the value it does. But more specifically.. why isn't it affected by the quantum corrections and and became Planck mass. Or in terms of this good intro site: http://www.quantumdiaries.org/2012/...why-the-higgs-has-a-snowballs-chance-in-hell/ "we expect its mass to be around 125 GeV (not too far from W and Z masses), but ambient quantum energy wants to make its mass much larger through interactions with virtual particles.".
Please read the site carefully.. You are a business lawyer so it would take more effort to understand the complexities of physics which is based on math.. not legal laws and linguistic based materials. Or just answer the direct question why the higgs is not affected by quantum corrections. Google the words "quadratically divergent contributions" and read it carefully then answer my question.