- #36
Mark44
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- 10,187
Right.Duncan1 said:You are saying that [itex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1 + 10^{-n}) = 1=lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1 - 10^{-n}) [/itex]
The limiting value (1) is never reached for any finite value of n, that's true but immaterial. To say that 1 is the limit of 1 - 10-n means only that I can make 1 - 10-n arbitrarily close to 1 by a suitable choice of a finite value of n.Duncan1 said:But I am saying that the limit is never actually reached, the expressions fall short by an infinitesimal amount.
If you ask if I can get this expression within .0001 of 1, I'll tell you a value of n that does the trick. (BTW any larger value of n works even better.)
If you still aren't convinced and want me to get the expression within .0000001 of 1, I'll tell you the value of n that works.
No matter how close you want 1 - 10-n to be to 1, I can tell you the value of n that makes this true, and again all values larger than that n also work.
The idea is that you specify how close 1 - 10-n should be to 1, and I figure out the n that works. That's what is meant by saying that 1 - 10-n can be made arbitrarily close to 1.
Duncan1 said:If you treat the above variations of 1 as interchangeable then I agree that [itex]1^{\infty}[/itex] is indeterminate. However my earlier expressions give different results for these different versions of 1.
Please could someone explain this to me? What is the reason for this convention, and why do my expressions not disprove it?
Also, how can my expressions have a definite value if [itex]1^{\infty}[/itex] does not, as my expression is just a variation of [itex]1^{\infty}[/itex]?