- #1
Foppe Hoekstra
- 41
- 2
- TL;DR Summary
- A clock ticking slower when it moves in respect to a substantial mass, I can understand, Hafele Keating showed it does and it is even measurable.
Still, Lorentz time dilation puzzles me.
Consider the full-circle train (radius R) of a great number (n) of wagons, coupled by clocks that can print a dot on the rail. All clocks are synchronised when the train is at rest (in regard to the rail, being the Stationary Frame SF) and then the train is accelerated to a constant speed v. After that in the centre of the circle an omnidirectional light signal is given. Every clock will print one dot on the rail and print its own reading ti (i = 1,2,3,…n) on a receipt when the signal is received.
I presume that all dots will be printed in a regular pattern, each pair of sequential dots on a distance of L = 2πR/n. But what times will be printed on the receipts? (I think it will be ti = t(i+1), as the signal comes from SF and in SF all clocks will still be synchronised.)
Now we board the train. To have the dots printed at the distance L (in SF), the printing by the front clock of any wagon cannot have been sync (in the co-moving frame of the wagon) with the printing of the rear clock of the same wagon; the front printing should be ahead vL/(c^2) relative to the rear printing, so time dilation ensures printing just on time in SF. And although every wagon should be seen as another (almost inertial) moving frame, it still means that the printing by clock 1 is ahead of the printing by clock zero, clock 2 is ahead of clock 1, et cetera, till finally clock n is ahead of clock n-1 and all together it means that the printing by clock n is ahead of the printing by clock zero. But clock n is clock zero! How does that work?
I presume that all dots will be printed in a regular pattern, each pair of sequential dots on a distance of L = 2πR/n. But what times will be printed on the receipts? (I think it will be ti = t(i+1), as the signal comes from SF and in SF all clocks will still be synchronised.)
Now we board the train. To have the dots printed at the distance L (in SF), the printing by the front clock of any wagon cannot have been sync (in the co-moving frame of the wagon) with the printing of the rear clock of the same wagon; the front printing should be ahead vL/(c^2) relative to the rear printing, so time dilation ensures printing just on time in SF. And although every wagon should be seen as another (almost inertial) moving frame, it still means that the printing by clock 1 is ahead of the printing by clock zero, clock 2 is ahead of clock 1, et cetera, till finally clock n is ahead of clock n-1 and all together it means that the printing by clock n is ahead of the printing by clock zero. But clock n is clock zero! How does that work?