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steenis
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- TL;DR Summary
- A one-to-one correspondence between bilinear non-degenerate maps and invertible linear maps
I have the following problem in multilinear algebra:
Let ##W## and ##V## be real finite-dimensional vector spaces, ##V^*## is the dual space of ##V##
Let ##L:W \times V \rightarrow \mathbb{R}## be a non-degenerate bilinear map
Define ##g:W \rightarrow V^*## by ##g(w)(v)=L(w,v)##
To prove: ##g## is an isomorphism
The map ##g## is obviously linear
##g## is injective, because if ##g(w)=0## for ##w \in W##, then for all ##v \in V## we have that ##g(w)(v)=L(w,v)=0##, so, because ##L## is non-degenerate, we have ##w=0##
Remains to prove that ##g## is surjective
If ##dim W=dim V=n##, then we are ready, because in that case ##dim W=dim V^*=n## and ##g## is surjective if and only if ##g## is injective. On the other hand, if ##g## is bijective, then ##g## is an isomorphism and ##dim W=dimV=dim V^*##. However, it is not a-priori given that ##W## and ##V## have the same dimension
Can anybody help me with this problem, can the statement be proven or is the statement not true?
Let ##W## and ##V## be real finite-dimensional vector spaces, ##V^*## is the dual space of ##V##
Let ##L:W \times V \rightarrow \mathbb{R}## be a non-degenerate bilinear map
Define ##g:W \rightarrow V^*## by ##g(w)(v)=L(w,v)##
To prove: ##g## is an isomorphism
The map ##g## is obviously linear
##g## is injective, because if ##g(w)=0## for ##w \in W##, then for all ##v \in V## we have that ##g(w)(v)=L(w,v)=0##, so, because ##L## is non-degenerate, we have ##w=0##
Remains to prove that ##g## is surjective
If ##dim W=dim V=n##, then we are ready, because in that case ##dim W=dim V^*=n## and ##g## is surjective if and only if ##g## is injective. On the other hand, if ##g## is bijective, then ##g## is an isomorphism and ##dim W=dimV=dim V^*##. However, it is not a-priori given that ##W## and ##V## have the same dimension
Can anybody help me with this problem, can the statement be proven or is the statement not true?