- #1
murshid_islam
- 458
- 19
Here is the proof I was reading: https://mathschallenge.net/full/irrationality_of_pi
I have a question about this very last inequality at the end:
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I have a question about this very last inequality at the end:
How did they get that "less than 1" bit?[itex]\therefore \displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\dfrac{a^n}{n!}\right)} = 0[/itex] and for sufficiently large [itex]
n, \dfrac{a^n\pi^{n+1}}{n!} \lt 1[/itex]
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