- #1
"Don't panic!"
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I've been making my way through Matthew Schwartz's QFT book "Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model". In chapter 6 he derives the differential cross-section for a ##2\rightarrow n## interaction. As part of the derivation, he introduces the Lorentz invariant phase space measure (LIPS), and notes that $$\int\frac{dp}{2\pi}=\frac{1}{L}$$ which he uses to find that ##V\times\int\frac{d^{3}p}{(2\pi)^{3}}=1##.
Now, I can see how this is the case from dimensional analysis, since ##[p]=\frac{1}{\text{Length}}##, however, is there a way to show mathematically (at least at a physicists level of rigour) that this is true?
Now, I can see how this is the case from dimensional analysis, since ##[p]=\frac{1}{\text{Length}}##, however, is there a way to show mathematically (at least at a physicists level of rigour) that this is true?