- #1
christian0710
- 409
- 9
Hi I'm reading a book called Calculus lifesaver, and in the book they state that the inverse of a function f(x)= x3 is the same as f-1(x)=3√x and is the same as f-1(y)=3√y
So I did a test, with a simpler function and I can't see how this is true
If I have a function f(x)= 2*x
Then the inverse would be y=2x→ x=y/2
So It’s correct then to write f-1(x)= x/2
And Is it wrong or correct to write?
f-1(y)= y/2 Because this is not the inverse of y, this is the inverse of X, so the right thing would be to either call it f-1(x)= x/2 OR f(y)= y/2 right?? If i graph it,
f(y)= y/2 gives us the same graph as f(x)= 2*x and f-1(x)= x/2 gives us a different graf which is the inverse, so It must be an error to state that f-1(x)=3√x is the same as f-1(y)=3√y Or am i wrong?
So I did a test, with a simpler function and I can't see how this is true
If I have a function f(x)= 2*x
Then the inverse would be y=2x→ x=y/2
So It’s correct then to write f-1(x)= x/2
And Is it wrong or correct to write?
f-1(y)= y/2 Because this is not the inverse of y, this is the inverse of X, so the right thing would be to either call it f-1(x)= x/2 OR f(y)= y/2 right?? If i graph it,
f(y)= y/2 gives us the same graph as f(x)= 2*x and f-1(x)= x/2 gives us a different graf which is the inverse, so It must be an error to state that f-1(x)=3√x is the same as f-1(y)=3√y Or am i wrong?