- #1
issacnewton
- 1,026
- 36
Hi
I am going through Edx course on Introduction to Differential Equations by Paul Blanchard (BUx: Math226.1x). At one point, he is explaining the Logistic population model.$$\frac{dp}{dt} = kp\left(1- \frac{p}{N}\right) $$ After this, he says that since the right hand side does not involve [itex]t[/itex], if [itex]p(0) = 0[/itex] then [itex]\frac{dp}{dt} = 0 [/itex] for all [itex]t[/itex]. I don't quite get his logic here. Can anyone explain this please ?
Thanks
I am going through Edx course on Introduction to Differential Equations by Paul Blanchard (BUx: Math226.1x). At one point, he is explaining the Logistic population model.$$\frac{dp}{dt} = kp\left(1- \frac{p}{N}\right) $$ After this, he says that since the right hand side does not involve [itex]t[/itex], if [itex]p(0) = 0[/itex] then [itex]\frac{dp}{dt} = 0 [/itex] for all [itex]t[/itex]. I don't quite get his logic here. Can anyone explain this please ?
Thanks