- #1
gipc
- 69
- 0
There's something I can't seem to figure out.
say we have the function
f=xz +x'z'
why is this equals (x xor z)' ?
i thought using De-Morgan's law we shall get
(x xor z)'=(x'z+z'x)'=(xz'zx')=0
then why does (x xor z)'=xz+x'z' ?
and one more small thing,
say we have
(x xor y) xor (x xor z)'
why does (x xor y) xor (x xor z)' = (x xor y xor x xor z)'
how did they come to this term?
say we have the function
f=xz +x'z'
why is this equals (x xor z)' ?
i thought using De-Morgan's law we shall get
(x xor z)'=(x'z+z'x)'=(xz'zx')=0
then why does (x xor z)'=xz+x'z' ?
and one more small thing,
say we have
(x xor y) xor (x xor z)'
why does (x xor y) xor (x xor z)' = (x xor y xor x xor z)'
how did they come to this term?