- #1
HeavyWater
- 56
- 4
- TL;DR Summary
- By example, show how one obtains a Bargmann-Wigner wave function.
See Reference: ArXiv: 1208.0644
The Bargmann Wigner Method seems to be a means to obtain wave equations for higher spins, I.e. j=1, 3/2, 2, etc. In this method, one uses a Dirac-like equation to operate on a wave function. For example, equations, 2.2 and 2.3 show Dirac-like equations that operate on wave functions. Usually in QM, we SOLVE for the wave function, but to my surprise equation 2.4 GIVES the wave function (here for j=1). In addition, I am surprised to see Dirac Gamma matrices (which pertain to Fermions) in an equation that will be used to derive a bosonic (j=1) wave equation. Can you talk about how someone came up with equation 2.4 and show how one derives one (or both) of the terms in 2.4.
The Bargmann Wigner Method seems to be a means to obtain wave equations for higher spins, I.e. j=1, 3/2, 2, etc. In this method, one uses a Dirac-like equation to operate on a wave function. For example, equations, 2.2 and 2.3 show Dirac-like equations that operate on wave functions. Usually in QM, we SOLVE for the wave function, but to my surprise equation 2.4 GIVES the wave function (here for j=1). In addition, I am surprised to see Dirac Gamma matrices (which pertain to Fermions) in an equation that will be used to derive a bosonic (j=1) wave equation. Can you talk about how someone came up with equation 2.4 and show how one derives one (or both) of the terms in 2.4.