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zetafunction
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http://arxiv1.library.cornell.edu/PS_cache/math/pdf/0102/0102031v10.pdf and http://arxiv1.library.cornell.edu/PS_cache/math/pdf/0102/0102031v1.pdf
what do you think ?
Author defines 2 operators [tex] D_{+} [/tex] and [tex] D_{-} [/tex] so they satisfy the properties [tex] D_{+} = D^{*}_{-} [/tex] [tex] D_{-} = D^{*}_{+} [/tex]
[tex] D_{+} =x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx} [/tex]
[tex] D_{-} =-x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx} [/tex]
If we define the Hamiltonian [tex] H= D_{+}D_{-} [/tex] this Hamiltonian would be Hermitian
and the energies would be [tex] E_{n}= s_{n} (1-s_{n}) [/tex] , here 's' are the zeros for the Riemann zeta function , so since the eigenvalues are real s(1-s) is real ONLY whenever ALL the zeros have real part 1/2 but ¿is this true ? , have this man proved Riemann HYpothesis ?
what do you think ?
Author defines 2 operators [tex] D_{+} [/tex] and [tex] D_{-} [/tex] so they satisfy the properties [tex] D_{+} = D^{*}_{-} [/tex] [tex] D_{-} = D^{*}_{+} [/tex]
[tex] D_{+} =x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx} [/tex]
[tex] D_{-} =-x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx} [/tex]
If we define the Hamiltonian [tex] H= D_{+}D_{-} [/tex] this Hamiltonian would be Hermitian
and the energies would be [tex] E_{n}= s_{n} (1-s_{n}) [/tex] , here 's' are the zeros for the Riemann zeta function , so since the eigenvalues are real s(1-s) is real ONLY whenever ALL the zeros have real part 1/2 but ¿is this true ? , have this man proved Riemann HYpothesis ?
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