[abstract algebra] is this ring isomorphic to

In summary, the ring \frac{\mathbb Z_2[X]}{X^2+1} is not isomorphic to \mathbb Z_2 \oplus \mathbb Z_2, \mathbb Z_4, or \mathbb F_4. This is because in a principle ideal domain, an ideal formed by a reducible element is not maximal, \mathbb Z_4 is not cyclic, and \mathbb Z_2 \oplus \mathbb Z_2 has no nilpotent elements. Alternatively, we could show that "1" and "X" would have the same image under an isomorphism between \frac{\mathbb Z_
  • #1
nonequilibrium
1,439
2

Homework Statement


Consider [itex]\frac{\mathbb Z_2[X]}{X^2+1}[/itex], is this ring isomorphic to [itex]\mathbb Z_2 \oplus \mathbb Z_2, \mathbb Z_4[/itex] or [itex]\mathbb F_4[/itex] or to none of these?

Homework Equations


/

The Attempt at a Solution



- [itex]\mathbb F_4[/itex] No, because [itex]\mathbb Z_2[X][/itex] is a principle ideal domain (Z_2 being a field) and X²+1 is reducible in [itex]\mathbb Z_2[X][/itex] and in a principle ideal domain an ideal formed by a reducible element is not maximal and thus the quotient is not a field

- [itex]\mathbb Z_4[/itex] No, as it can obviously not be cyclical

- [itex]\mathbb Z_2 \oplus \mathbb Z_2[/itex] No. Because say there is an isomorphism [itex]\phi: \frac{\mathbb Z_2[X]}{X^2+1} \to \mathbb Z_2 \oplus \mathbb Z_2[/itex], then say [itex]\phi(X) = (a,b)[/itex], then [itex]\phi(1) = \phi(X^2) = \phi(X)* \phi(X) = (a^2,b^2) = (a,b)[/itex] since a and b are either zero or one. As a result "1" and "X" would have the same image. Contradiction.

Is this correct? If so, does this also seem like a good way to do it, or did I overlook an easier way to do this?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
It seems to be correct! And you also used a very nice method to show this :smile:

If you don't want to work with the isomorphism in (3), then you could perhaps say that [itex]\mathbb{Z}_2\oplus\mathbb{Z}_2[/itex] has no nilpotent elements, while [itex]\mathbb{Z}[X]/(X^2+1)[/itex] does.
 
  • #3
Aha true :) thank you
 

FAQ: [abstract algebra] is this ring isomorphic to

1. Is this ring isomorphic to another ring?

To determine if two rings are isomorphic, we must compare their structures. This includes checking if they have the same number of elements, the same operations, and the same properties. If all of these are equivalent, then the two rings are isomorphic.

2. How do you prove that two rings are isomorphic?

To prove that two rings are isomorphic, we must show that there exists a bijective homomorphism between the two rings. This means we must find a function that preserves the operations and properties of the rings, and is one-to-one and onto.

3. Can a ring be isomorphic to itself?

Yes, a ring can be isomorphic to itself. This is known as the identity isomorphism, where the function that maps the elements of the ring to themselves is both one-to-one and onto, and preserves the operations and properties of the ring.

4. Can an infinite ring be isomorphic to a finite ring?

Yes, an infinite ring can be isomorphic to a finite ring. The size of a ring does not affect its isomorphism, as long as the structures of the rings are equivalent.

5. Is it possible for two rings to be isomorphic but have different identities?

Yes, it is possible for two rings to be isomorphic but have different identities. Isomorphic rings have equivalent structures, but their elements may be mapped to each other in different ways. This means their identities may also be different.

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
10
Views
1K
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
14
Views
2K
Back
Top