- #1
David Koufos
- 9
- 4
Hello all, I want to say thank you in advance for any and all advice on my question. My classical mechanics textbook (Marion Thornton) has been taking me through motion for a particle with retarding forces.
The example it keeps giving is:
m dv/dt = -kmv
which can be solved for:
v = v0e-kt and
x = v0/k(1-e-kt)
But out of curiosity I tried using the actual drag force equation "1/2ρCAv2" instead of "kmv." But I can't figure out how to solve the differential:
##\ddot x ## + 1/2ρCA##\dot x ##2 = 0
How do you solve this thing? I'm stuck since it's not the standard
x'' + ax' + bx = 0
My solution yielded:
$$ \int\frac{\mathrm{d}\dot x }{ \dot x^2} = \frac{1}{2m}\rho CA\int \mathrm{dt} $$
which just gives some weird thing:
$$t = e^{\frac{1}{2m}\rho CAx} $$
which can't be right.
The example it keeps giving is:
m dv/dt = -kmv
which can be solved for:
v = v0e-kt and
x = v0/k(1-e-kt)
But out of curiosity I tried using the actual drag force equation "1/2ρCAv2" instead of "kmv." But I can't figure out how to solve the differential:
##\ddot x ## + 1/2ρCA##\dot x ##2 = 0
How do you solve this thing? I'm stuck since it's not the standard
x'' + ax' + bx = 0
My solution yielded:
$$ \int\frac{\mathrm{d}\dot x }{ \dot x^2} = \frac{1}{2m}\rho CA\int \mathrm{dt} $$
which just gives some weird thing:
$$t = e^{\frac{1}{2m}\rho CAx} $$
which can't be right.
Last edited: