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I am reading Chapter 2: Commutative Rings in Joseph Rotman's book, Advanced Modern Algebra (Second Edition).
I am currently focussed on Proposition 2.70 [pages 118 - 119] concerning algebraic integers.
I need help to the proof of part (iii) this Proposition.
Proposition 2.70 and its proof read as follows:View attachment 2709
View attachment 2710I have two questions pertaining to the proof of part (iii).
Question 1
In the above text when he is proving part (iii) Rotman writes the following:
" ... ... ... Now \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] \) is an additive subgroup of \(\displaystyle G = \ < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ 0 \leq i \lt n \ , \ 0 \leq j \lt m > ... ... ... \)".
Now in part (ii) of the proof, Rotman has shown that:
" ... ... ... if \(\displaystyle deg(f) = n \) then \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha ] = G \) where G is the set of all set of all linear combinations \(\displaystyle m_0 + m_1 \alpha + \ ... \ ... + m_{n-1} \alpha^{n-1} \) ... ... "
So following this proof in part (ii) wouldn't we have, in the section of part (iii) quoted above, that \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] = G \) where \(\displaystyle G = \ < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ 0 \leq i \lt n \ , \ 0 \leq j \lt m > ... ... ... \)" ... but Rotman calls \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] = G \) a subgroup of G.
Can someone please clarify this issue?
Question 2
In the proof of part (iii) Rotman writes:
" ... ... ... Similarly, \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha + \beta ] \)is an additive subgroup of \(\displaystyle < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ i + j \leq n + m - 1 > \) and so \(\displaystyle \alpha + \beta \) is also an algebraic integer. ... ..."
Can someone please explain how this statement follows?
Help will be appreciated!
Peter
I am currently focussed on Proposition 2.70 [pages 118 - 119] concerning algebraic integers.
I need help to the proof of part (iii) this Proposition.
Proposition 2.70 and its proof read as follows:View attachment 2709
View attachment 2710I have two questions pertaining to the proof of part (iii).
Question 1
In the above text when he is proving part (iii) Rotman writes the following:
" ... ... ... Now \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] \) is an additive subgroup of \(\displaystyle G = \ < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ 0 \leq i \lt n \ , \ 0 \leq j \lt m > ... ... ... \)".
Now in part (ii) of the proof, Rotman has shown that:
" ... ... ... if \(\displaystyle deg(f) = n \) then \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha ] = G \) where G is the set of all set of all linear combinations \(\displaystyle m_0 + m_1 \alpha + \ ... \ ... + m_{n-1} \alpha^{n-1} \) ... ... "
So following this proof in part (ii) wouldn't we have, in the section of part (iii) quoted above, that \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] = G \) where \(\displaystyle G = \ < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ 0 \leq i \lt n \ , \ 0 \leq j \lt m > ... ... ... \)" ... but Rotman calls \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha \beta ] = G \) a subgroup of G.
Can someone please clarify this issue?
Question 2
In the proof of part (iii) Rotman writes:
" ... ... ... Similarly, \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} [ \alpha + \beta ] \)is an additive subgroup of \(\displaystyle < \alpha^i \beta^j \ : \ i + j \leq n + m - 1 > \) and so \(\displaystyle \alpha + \beta \) is also an algebraic integer. ... ..."
Can someone please explain how this statement follows?
Help will be appreciated!
Peter
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