Almost All" Numbers in [0,1] are Satanic

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In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of "satanic" numbers in the interval [0,1] and how to prove that "almost all" numbers in this interval are satanic. It also mentions the Lebesgue measure and the probability of a number not containing the sequence 666 in its decimal expansion. The conclusion is that the probability is zero, making "almost all" numbers in [0,1] satanic.
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EL
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Could someone please help me with this problem which I have suffered many hours in front of? I never came to any solution which totally satisfied me, and I'm guessing I'm on the wrong track...

A number x in the interval [0,1] is called "satanic" if the decimal expansion of x contains somewhere the sequence 666.
Show that "almost all" numbers in [0,1] are satanic, i.e., that m([0,1]\S)=0 where S is the set of satanic numbers, and m is the Lebesgue measure.
 
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Let us assume [0,1]\S is measurable (I can't see why it shouldn't be), its measure is then the probability that a number I pick at random from [0,1] doesn't contain 666 at any point in its expansion. But that probability is zero, as the 666 occurs roughly once in every 1000 blocks of three digits, so the probablity it doesn't occur in the first n*1000 places is 999/1000)^n which tends to zero as n tends to infinity.
 
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First of all, I want to acknowledge the frustration and difficulty you have faced in trying to solve this problem. It can be disheartening when we spend hours trying to find a solution and still feel like we are on the wrong track. But don't give up, as it is often through perseverance and seeking help that we can eventually find a satisfying solution.

Now, let's address the issue at hand. The statement that "almost all" numbers in [0,1] are satanic can be proven using the concept of measure theory. In this context, the term "almost all" means that the set of numbers in [0,1] that are not satanic has a measure of 0. In other words, the set of satanic numbers is so small compared to the whole interval [0,1] that it can be considered negligible.

To prove this, we first need to define the Lebesgue measure, denoted by m, which is a mathematical tool used to measure the size of sets in a given space. In this case, the space is [0,1] and the set we are interested in is S, the set of satanic numbers. The Lebesgue measure of a set is defined as the length, area, or volume of the set, depending on the dimension of the space.

Now, we can use the definition of the Lebesgue measure to show that the set of satanic numbers has a measure of 0 in [0,1]. Since the decimal expansion of a number can be infinite, we can think of the numbers in [0,1] as points on a number line, with each point representing a unique decimal expansion.

Given that the decimal expansion of a satanic number contains the sequence 666 somewhere, we can conclude that the set of satanic numbers is countable. This means that we can list all the satanic numbers in a sequence, such as 0.666, 0.0666, 0.00666, and so on. Since the set is countable, it has a measure of 0, according to the definition of the Lebesgue measure.

On the other hand, the set of non-satanic numbers in [0,1] is uncountable, which means we cannot list all the numbers in a sequence. Therefore, the set of non-satanic numbers has a measure of 1, according to the Lebesgue measure. Since
 

FAQ: Almost All" Numbers in [0,1] are Satanic

How are "almost all" numbers in [0,1] considered Satanic?

This concept is based on the idea that the decimal expansion of a number can be infinitely long and therefore, any finite set of numbers can be considered negligible compared to the infinite set of numbers in [0,1]. This means that "almost all" numbers in [0,1] are essentially infinite and can contain any combination of digits, including ones that may be associated with Satanic symbolism.

Is there any scientific basis for this belief?

No, there is no scientific evidence to support the idea that "almost all" numbers in [0,1] have any connection to Satanism. This is purely a mathematical concept and has no relation to religious beliefs or practices.

Are there any specific numbers that are considered more Satanic than others?

No, all numbers in [0,1] are considered equally "almost all" and therefore, there is no differentiation between them in terms of their connection to Satanism. This concept applies to the entire set of numbers in [0,1] rather than individual numbers.

Is this belief widely accepted in the scientific community?

No, this belief is not widely accepted in the scientific community. It is a mathematical concept that is not related to scientific research or findings. It is also not a widely recognized or accepted concept in religious beliefs.

Does this concept have any practical applications?

No, this concept does not have any practical applications in the scientific or mathematical world. It is simply a theoretical concept used to explain the infinite nature of numbers in [0,1]. It has no real-world implications or uses.

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