- #1
y_lindsay
- 17
- 0
can anyone tell me how to prove the 1st mean-value theorem for integral
[tex]\int^{b}_{a}f(x)g(x)dx=f(\xi)\int^{b}_{a}g(x)dx[/tex]
by applying Lagrange mean-value theorem to an integral with variable upper limit?
thanks a lot.
[tex]\int^{b}_{a}f(x)g(x)dx=f(\xi)\int^{b}_{a}g(x)dx[/tex]
by applying Lagrange mean-value theorem to an integral with variable upper limit?
thanks a lot.