- #1
JK423
Gold Member
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An idea crossed my mind on how to explain the weak equivalence principle(WEP) without using the gravitational law: F=G m1m2/r2
Part of what WEP sais is that assuming we are in a uniform gravitational field, if we let two objects of different masses, they will fall with exactly the same speed. The "heavier" will not fall on the ground faster than the the "lighter".
The usual way to prove this is this:
F=G m1m2/r2=m1a1
which means that the acceleration a1 will be independent of the object`s mass m1.
My idea now:
1)Let`s assume that all matter around us is composed at its very basis by a particle X of a spesific mass mx. But the point is, that all matter will be consituted by the smallest particle possible. Maybe it`s a particle even smaller than the quark, i don't know what that is, I am just assuming.
2)Let`s take an object and place it in a uniform gravitational field. Imagine that object to be constituted by a bunch of those particles X.
3)The gravitational field will exert force on every single one of those particles that constitute the object. Since all these have the same mass, they will all move with the same acceleration. As a consequence of that, the whole object will move with that acceleration.
Conclusion:
It doesn`t matter how much mass this object has, or to put it differently:
It doesn`t matter how many of those particles there are. Since every single one of them will move with a spesific acceleration, then the whole object will move with that acceleration.
I mean, i doesn't matter if that object is iron or cotton. It doesn't matter if the iron`s atoms are a lot heavier than the cotton`s. What matters is that, all matter (iron, cotton or even electrons and protons) are constituted by the very same ingredient. By a hypothetical particle with a spesific mass.
Making that assumption we can explain the universality of free fall without using the usual process (F=G m1m2/r2=m1a1)
What do you think about that?
Part of what WEP sais is that assuming we are in a uniform gravitational field, if we let two objects of different masses, they will fall with exactly the same speed. The "heavier" will not fall on the ground faster than the the "lighter".
The usual way to prove this is this:
F=G m1m2/r2=m1a1
which means that the acceleration a1 will be independent of the object`s mass m1.
My idea now:
1)Let`s assume that all matter around us is composed at its very basis by a particle X of a spesific mass mx. But the point is, that all matter will be consituted by the smallest particle possible. Maybe it`s a particle even smaller than the quark, i don't know what that is, I am just assuming.
2)Let`s take an object and place it in a uniform gravitational field. Imagine that object to be constituted by a bunch of those particles X.
3)The gravitational field will exert force on every single one of those particles that constitute the object. Since all these have the same mass, they will all move with the same acceleration. As a consequence of that, the whole object will move with that acceleration.
Conclusion:
It doesn`t matter how much mass this object has, or to put it differently:
It doesn`t matter how many of those particles there are. Since every single one of them will move with a spesific acceleration, then the whole object will move with that acceleration.
I mean, i doesn't matter if that object is iron or cotton. It doesn't matter if the iron`s atoms are a lot heavier than the cotton`s. What matters is that, all matter (iron, cotton or even electrons and protons) are constituted by the very same ingredient. By a hypothetical particle with a spesific mass.
Making that assumption we can explain the universality of free fall without using the usual process (F=G m1m2/r2=m1a1)
What do you think about that?