Analysis(sequences) proof: multiplying infinite limit at infinity by 0

In summary, the conversation discusses how to prove that the limit of ca_n converges to infinity for c>0, -infinity for c<0, and 0 for c=0. The discussion involves using definitions and theorems to show that ca_n either meets the criteria for divergence to infinity or can be proven to be equal to 0, depending on the value of c.
  • #1
K29
108
0

Homework Statement


Let [tex]\stackrel{lim}{_{n \rightarrow \infty}}a_{n} = \infty[/tex]
Let [tex]c \in R[/tex]
Prove that
[tex]\stackrel{lim}{_{n \rightarrow \infty}} ca_{n}=[/tex]

[tex]\infty[/tex] for [tex]c>0[/tex] (i)

[tex]- \infty[/tex] for [tex]c<0[/tex] (ii)

[tex] 0 [/tex] for [tex]c=0[/tex] (iii)

Homework Equations


Definition of divergence to infinity (infinite limit at infinity)
[tex] \forall A \in R. \exists K\in R [/tex] such that [tex]a_{n} \geq A, \forall n \geq K[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


For the first two cases I just used the above definition and essentially multiplied c by the inequality.
For the c=0 case used the definition for a finite limit:
[tex]\forall \epsilon > 0 \exists K_{\epsilon} \in R[/tex] such that [tex]\forall n \in N, n \geq K_{\epsilon}, |a_{n}-L|<\epsilon[/tex]
Now if I can squeeze [tex]0 \leq |c a_{n}-0| \leq ?=0[/tex] then I'm done
But I can't see an upper limit for the inequality.Stuck there.
Or is there a way to prove this by contradiction instead of the way I've chosen.
Help?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
But in the case where c = 0, what is can?
 
  • #3
Its 0.So sure, the sandwich theorem can't work. So could it be as simple as using the definition of divergence to get contradicion.
I must have [tex]ca_n \geq A, \forall A[/tex] but by fixing n I get [tex]ca_{n}=0 < A[/tex]. Contradiciton.
But is it enough to say that it does not diverge to infinity and minus infinity therefore it must converge to zero? Surely not?
 
Last edited:
  • #4
Oh wait I think I see somthing else
Using the theorem that says
If [tex]|a_{n}-L|=0 \forall n[/tex] then [tex]|a_{n}-L| < \epsilon[/tex] etc etc defn of limit.
So I could prove by induction that |[tex]ca_{n}-0|=0[/tex] or more simply that
[tex]ca_{n}=0 \forall n[/tex] But then I get stuck on what to do with
[tex]ca_{n+1}[/tex]
 
  • #5
LCKurtz said:
But in the case where c = 0, what is can?

K29 said:
Its 0.So sure, the sandwich theorem can't work.

You are trying to make |can - 0| < ε

If can = 0, how hard is that?
 
  • #6
I thought I'd have to prove [tex]ca_{n} = 0 \forall n[/tex] by induction. But I've thought about it and I think I see that I shouldn't need to
Thanks
 

FAQ: Analysis(sequences) proof: multiplying infinite limit at infinity by 0

1. What is the concept of multiplying an infinite limit at infinity by 0 in analysis?

In analysis, multiplying an infinite limit at infinity by 0 refers to the process of evaluating the limit of a sequence where the terms of the sequence approach infinity, and the limit of the sequence multiplied by 0. This is an indeterminate form and requires further analysis to determine the actual limit.

2. Why is multiplying an infinite limit at infinity by 0 considered an indeterminate form?

Multiplying an infinite limit at infinity by 0 is considered an indeterminate form because it does not give a definite result. The limit of the sequence may approach infinity, but the value of the sequence when multiplied by 0 is undefined. This requires further analysis to determine the actual limit of the sequence.

3. How do you prove a sequence with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0?

To prove a sequence with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0, one must use the definition of a limit and algebraic manipulation. The process involves simplifying the expression and then using the definition of a limit to evaluate the limit of the sequence. The result will determine if the limit exists or not.

4. Can a sequence with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0 have a finite limit?

No, a sequence with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0 cannot have a finite limit. This is because when a sequence approaches infinity, multiplying it by 0 will result in an undefined value. Therefore, the limit of the sequence will not be a finite number.

5. What are some real-life applications of analyzing sequences with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0?

Analyzing sequences with an infinite limit at infinity multiplied by 0 is essential in various mathematical and scientific fields. One practical application is in the study of infinite series, where understanding the behavior of infinite limits can help determine the convergence or divergence of a series. Additionally, this concept is also used in the study of limits in calculus, which has many practical applications in engineering, physics, and economics.

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
13
Views
2K
Replies
28
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
989
Replies
6
Views
901
Replies
2
Views
1K
Back
Top