- #1
JoeyBob
- 256
- 29
- Homework Statement
- See attached
- Relevant Equations
- Torque=change in angular momentum
I know how to get to the answer but that's what is confusing me.
To find final velocity I multiply the acceleration by the time the object fell.
Then multiply the velocity by the mass to get momentum.
Now the angular momentum is r x p.
Since the initial angular momentum was 0, this was also the change in angular momentum.
The problem is that to solve this youre not suppose to multiply by the time. You are suppose to do r*a*d*m to get the answer (599.56).
Why don't I need the momentum to find the angular momentum here??
To find final velocity I multiply the acceleration by the time the object fell.
Then multiply the velocity by the mass to get momentum.
Now the angular momentum is r x p.
Since the initial angular momentum was 0, this was also the change in angular momentum.
The problem is that to solve this youre not suppose to multiply by the time. You are suppose to do r*a*d*m to get the answer (599.56).
Why don't I need the momentum to find the angular momentum here??