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physical_chemist
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- TL;DR Summary
- How can I think about the uncertainty principle for angular momentum components and the particle on a ring problem, since L and Lz are parallel in this case?
By considering a particle on a ring, the eigenfunctions of ##H## are also eigenfunctions of ##L_\text{z}##:
$$\psi(\phi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{im\phi}$$
with ##m = 0,\pm 1,\pm 2,\cdots##. In polar coordinates, the corresponding operators are
$$H = -\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2I}\frac{d^{2}}{d\phi^{2}}$$ $$L_\text{z} = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial \phi}$$
The Robertson version of uncertainty principle, valid in a statistical sense, tell us
$$\Delta L_{x}\Delta L_\text{y} \geq \frac{1}{2}\left | \int \psi^{*}[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi d\tau\right | $$ where usually ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}##. The operators for ##L_{x}## and ##L_{y}## are
$$L_{x} = i\hbar \left ( sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} + cot(\theta)sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}\right )$$
$$L_{y} = -i\hbar \left ( cos(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} - cot(\theta)sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}\right )$$
Since the ring plane is located on xy plane, i.e ##\theta = \pi/2##, we obtain
$$L_{x}\psi = L_{y}\psi = 0$$
This make sense, since the particle is rotating around z-axis. Then, ##[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi = 0##? Thus, in this specific case, doesn't the relation ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}## hold? The interpretation of uncertainty principle is valid for a complete set of eigenfunctions of two operators, but can exist some eigenfunctions of ##L_{z}## which are eigenfunctions of ##L_{x}## and ##L_{y}## (I only know the ##Y_{0}^{0}## case until now). Does it means that ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}## should be use with care? Why? Is it valid only when ##[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi \neq 0## ? Even expanding the ##L_{z}## eigenfunctions in spherical harmonic, I can't obtain a satisfactory answer. Angular momentum is a vector quantity. Could you help me?
$$\psi(\phi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{im\phi}$$
with ##m = 0,\pm 1,\pm 2,\cdots##. In polar coordinates, the corresponding operators are
$$H = -\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2I}\frac{d^{2}}{d\phi^{2}}$$ $$L_\text{z} = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial \phi}$$
The Robertson version of uncertainty principle, valid in a statistical sense, tell us
$$\Delta L_{x}\Delta L_\text{y} \geq \frac{1}{2}\left | \int \psi^{*}[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi d\tau\right | $$ where usually ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}##. The operators for ##L_{x}## and ##L_{y}## are
$$L_{x} = i\hbar \left ( sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} + cot(\theta)sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}\right )$$
$$L_{y} = -i\hbar \left ( cos(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} - cot(\theta)sin(\phi)\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}\right )$$
Since the ring plane is located on xy plane, i.e ##\theta = \pi/2##, we obtain
$$L_{x}\psi = L_{y}\psi = 0$$
This make sense, since the particle is rotating around z-axis. Then, ##[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi = 0##? Thus, in this specific case, doesn't the relation ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}## hold? The interpretation of uncertainty principle is valid for a complete set of eigenfunctions of two operators, but can exist some eigenfunctions of ##L_{z}## which are eigenfunctions of ##L_{x}## and ##L_{y}## (I only know the ##Y_{0}^{0}## case until now). Does it means that ##[L_{x},L_{y}] = i\hbar L_{z}## should be use with care? Why? Is it valid only when ##[L_{x},L_{y}]\psi \neq 0## ? Even expanding the ##L_{z}## eigenfunctions in spherical harmonic, I can't obtain a satisfactory answer. Angular momentum is a vector quantity. Could you help me?
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