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I am reading "Introduction to Real Analysis" (Fourth Edition) by Robert G Bartle and Donald R Sherbert ...
I am focused on Chapter 7: The Riemann Integral ...
I need help in fully understanding yet another aspect of the proof of Theorem 7.3.5 ...Theorem 7.3.5 and its proof ... ... read as follows:View attachment 7327
In the above proof from Bartle and Sherbert we read the following:
" ... ... But, since \(\displaystyle \epsilon \gt 0\) is arbitrary, we conclude that the right hand limit is given by
\(\displaystyle \text{lim}_{ x \rightarrow 0+ } \frac{ F( c + h ) - F(c) }{h} = f(c) \)
... ... "Should this read \(\displaystyle \text{lim}_{ h \rightarrow 0+ } \frac{ F( c + h ) - F(c) }{h} = f(c)\) ... ...?
BUT ... if the expression is correct, can someone please explain how to interpret it ... ?
Peter
I am focused on Chapter 7: The Riemann Integral ...
I need help in fully understanding yet another aspect of the proof of Theorem 7.3.5 ...Theorem 7.3.5 and its proof ... ... read as follows:View attachment 7327
In the above proof from Bartle and Sherbert we read the following:
" ... ... But, since \(\displaystyle \epsilon \gt 0\) is arbitrary, we conclude that the right hand limit is given by
\(\displaystyle \text{lim}_{ x \rightarrow 0+ } \frac{ F( c + h ) - F(c) }{h} = f(c) \)
... ... "Should this read \(\displaystyle \text{lim}_{ h \rightarrow 0+ } \frac{ F( c + h ) - F(c) }{h} = f(c)\) ... ...?
BUT ... if the expression is correct, can someone please explain how to interpret it ... ?
Peter