- #1
Libertine
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An ellipse has an equation which can be written parametrically as:
x = a cos(t)
y = b sin(t)
It can be proved that the circumference of this ellipse is given by the integral:
[tex]\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt[/tex]
Prove that, if [tex]a=r(1+c)[/tex] and [tex]b=r(1-c)[/tex], where c is a positive number small enough for powers higher than [tex]c^2[/tex] to be neglected, then this circumference is approximately:
[tex]2 \pi r (1+\frac{1}{4}c^2)[/tex]
So I substituted in the expressions for a and b:
[tex]$ \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(r(1+c))^2 \sin^2 t + (r(1-c))^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{\sin^2 t + 2c \sin^2 t + c^2 \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t - 2c \cos^2 t + c^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(\sin^2 t + \cos^2 t)+ c^2( \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t) + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{1 + c^2 + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\ $
[/tex]
After this point, I seem to hit a brick wall and can't simplify it any further or factorise to get rid of that annoying square root. Any help appreciated.
(I'm assuming the tex won't come out all right first time, so I'll be trying to correct it for a little while)
x = a cos(t)
y = b sin(t)
It can be proved that the circumference of this ellipse is given by the integral:
[tex]\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt[/tex]
Prove that, if [tex]a=r(1+c)[/tex] and [tex]b=r(1-c)[/tex], where c is a positive number small enough for powers higher than [tex]c^2[/tex] to be neglected, then this circumference is approximately:
[tex]2 \pi r (1+\frac{1}{4}c^2)[/tex]
So I substituted in the expressions for a and b:
[tex]$ \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(r(1+c))^2 \sin^2 t + (r(1-c))^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{\sin^2 t + 2c \sin^2 t + c^2 \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t - 2c \cos^2 t + c^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(\sin^2 t + \cos^2 t)+ c^2( \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t) + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\
=r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{1 + c^2 + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\ $
[/tex]
After this point, I seem to hit a brick wall and can't simplify it any further or factorise to get rid of that annoying square root. Any help appreciated.
(I'm assuming the tex won't come out all right first time, so I'll be trying to correct it for a little while)
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