- #1
lugita15
- 1,554
- 15
If f is a continuous bijection from a metric space M to a metric space N, is the inverse function of f necessarily continuous?
My intuition tells me no; it seems like there could be a continuous bijection f whose inverse exists but is not continuous. Intuitively, I see two spaces being homeomorphic as a stronger condition than the existence of a continuous bijection between them.
I tried proving that the inverse of f must be continuous, but I couldn't.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you in advance.
My intuition tells me no; it seems like there could be a continuous bijection f whose inverse exists but is not continuous. Intuitively, I see two spaces being homeomorphic as a stronger condition than the existence of a continuous bijection between them.
I tried proving that the inverse of f must be continuous, but I couldn't.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you in advance.