- #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
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Hello! (Wave)
I am looking at the following exercise:
I have thought the following:
I am looking at the following exercise:
- Let $(a_n)$ be a sequence of real numbers such that $a_{2n} \to a$ and $a_{2n+1} \to a$ for some real number $a$. Show that $a_n \to a$.
- We are given the sequence $x_n=0$ if $n$ is even, $x_n=1$ if $n$ is odd. Check as for the convergence the sequence $\left( \frac{x_1+x_2+\dots+x_n}{n}\right)$.
I have thought the following:
- Since $a_{2n} \to a$, we have that $\forall \epsilon>0 \ \exists n_1$ such that $|a_{2n}-a|<\epsilon, \forall n \geq n_1$.
Since $a_{2n+1} \to a$, we have that $\forall \epsilon>0 \ \exists n_2$ such that $|a_{2n+1}-a|<\epsilon, \forall n \geq n_2$.
Then we have that $|a_n-a|<\epsilon, \forall n \geq \max \{ n_1,n_2\}$ and $\forall \epsilon$ and thus $a_n \to a$.
Is this right? (Thinking)
- We have that $0 \leq \frac{x_1+x_2+\dots+x_n}{n} \leq \frac{\frac{n}{2}}{n}=\frac{1}{2}$.
Does this help somehow? (Thinking)