- #36
Antonio Lao
- 1,440
- 1
InvariantBrian,
No. But let me be more specific about it. In analytical mechanics, there are many ways that force is defined.
One definition is that force is the negative gradient of a scalar potential function.
[tex] F = -\vec{\nabla} V [/tex]
This force depends only on the coordinates of the object to which the force is applied. It does not depends on the velocity of the object. And generalized forces can be defined as the derivative of the Lagrangian with respect to the generalized coordinates.
[tex] F_i = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} [/tex]
while the generalized momenta are given by
[tex] p_i = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \.{q}_i} [/tex]
where [itex]\.{q}_i [/itex] are the generalized velocities.
The first leads to Newton's 2nd law of motion.
No. But let me be more specific about it. In analytical mechanics, there are many ways that force is defined.
One definition is that force is the negative gradient of a scalar potential function.
[tex] F = -\vec{\nabla} V [/tex]
This force depends only on the coordinates of the object to which the force is applied. It does not depends on the velocity of the object. And generalized forces can be defined as the derivative of the Lagrangian with respect to the generalized coordinates.
[tex] F_i = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} [/tex]
while the generalized momenta are given by
[tex] p_i = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \.{q}_i} [/tex]
where [itex]\.{q}_i [/itex] are the generalized velocities.
The first leads to Newton's 2nd law of motion.
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