- #1
Nanyang
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If I consider a "geometrically symmetrical" physical system like maybe 2 identical masses connected by a spring. Now I stretch the masses apart and it is still symmetrical. So if I have a friend standing directly opposite me and facing me with the spring-mass system in between us the mass on my right is the mass on his left and similarly for the one on my left is the one on his right.
If by some law of physics for the right mass causes the mass on my right moves in whatever fashion, that would mean that the mass on my friend's right moves in that same fashion. Since my right is his left and his right is my left, the conclusion is that both masses in the spring-mass system moves symmetrically. Which we know to be true from the conservation of momentum.
This brings me to wonder if Newton's 3rd law is a result of this "symmetry", that we cannot tell left from right. Since if by some law of physics a force is exerted on B by A where A and B are identical, then a rotation of coordinates by 180 degree (like some sort of reflection in a mirror) would mean that B is now on the side where A used to be before the rotation. So if nature doesn't allow one to tell left from right, we would conclude that the force on A by B is exactly equivalent in magnitude but in opposite direction.
Do you think my so called "analysis" is valid? Or is it just crackpot stuff? Thanks in advance!
Small note: I am an amateur student in physics so it would be good if the replies are simple where they can be, but still address the root of the problem.
If by some law of physics for the right mass causes the mass on my right moves in whatever fashion, that would mean that the mass on my friend's right moves in that same fashion. Since my right is his left and his right is my left, the conclusion is that both masses in the spring-mass system moves symmetrically. Which we know to be true from the conservation of momentum.
This brings me to wonder if Newton's 3rd law is a result of this "symmetry", that we cannot tell left from right. Since if by some law of physics a force is exerted on B by A where A and B are identical, then a rotation of coordinates by 180 degree (like some sort of reflection in a mirror) would mean that B is now on the side where A used to be before the rotation. So if nature doesn't allow one to tell left from right, we would conclude that the force on A by B is exactly equivalent in magnitude but in opposite direction.
Do you think my so called "analysis" is valid? Or is it just crackpot stuff? Thanks in advance!
Small note: I am an amateur student in physics so it would be good if the replies are simple where they can be, but still address the root of the problem.
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