- #1
i_m_sadiq
- 4
- 0
Hlw...I am a new guy here...And I am taking a course of Applied Mechanics in my freshmen year...Here I have come across a term called Area of moment of inertia which I don't really understand that much...And I have been given to prove that
[tex]
I_d = \frac{\pi a^4}{4}
[/tex]...I was trying everything but I am at my wit's end...So, if some helps me it would be great...A thanks in advance for the help...
[tex]
I_d = \frac{\pi a^4}{4}
[/tex]...I was trying everything but I am at my wit's end...So, if some helps me it would be great...A thanks in advance for the help...