- #1
Yankel
- 395
- 0
Hello,
I am looking for the area between
\[f(x)=x\cdot ln^{2}(x)-x\]
and the x-axis.
I have a solution in hand, it suggests that the area is:
\[\int_{\frac{1}{e}}^{e}(x-x\cdot ln^{2}(x))dx\approx 1.95\]
I have a problem with this solution, I don't understand where the area between 0 and 1/e had gone to...
I plotted the function in maple, and an area is appearing very clearly (see photo).
View attachment 2029
So my question: Do you think like me, that the solution attached to this exercise is wrong? If not, where does this area gone to ?
thanks !
I am looking for the area between
\[f(x)=x\cdot ln^{2}(x)-x\]
and the x-axis.
I have a solution in hand, it suggests that the area is:
\[\int_{\frac{1}{e}}^{e}(x-x\cdot ln^{2}(x))dx\approx 1.95\]
I have a problem with this solution, I don't understand where the area between 0 and 1/e had gone to...
I plotted the function in maple, and an area is appearing very clearly (see photo).
View attachment 2029
So my question: Do you think like me, that the solution attached to this exercise is wrong? If not, where does this area gone to ?
thanks !