At Least p+1 p-Subgroups in Finite Group G

  • MHB
  • Thread starter johng1
  • Start date
In summary, assuming $G$ is abelian, if $G$ has more than one subgroup of order $p$, then it has at least $p+1$ subgroups of order $p$. This is shown by Wielandt's proof of the Sylow theorem, which states that the number of subgroups of a given order is congruent to $1$ modulo $p$. The bound is sharp, as shown by the example $G=\mathbb{Z}_p\oplus\mathbb{Z}_p$.
  • #1
johng1
235
0
Let p be a prime and G a finite group. Suppose G has more than one subgroup of order p. Then G has at least p+1 subgroups of order p. Notice the bound is sharp as shown by

\(\displaystyle G=\mathbb{Z}_p\oplus\mathbb{Z}_p\)
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
johng said:
Let p be a prime and G a finite group. Suppose G has more than one subgroup of order p. Then G has at least p+1 subgroups of order p. Notice the bound is sharp as shown by

\(\displaystyle G=\mathbb{Z}_p\oplus\mathbb{Z}_p\)
Okay. But what is your question? :P

EDIT:

I can do it if we additionally assume that $G$ is abelian.
Let $H_1,\ldots,H_k$ be all the subgroups of order $p$.
Let $S=\{x\in G:x^p=e\}$.
Then it can be seen that $S=\bigcup_{i=1}^k H_i$.
Also, $S$ is a subgroup of $G$ since $G$ is abelian.

Also, no member in $S$ has order other that $1$ or $p$. Thus, by Cauchy's theorem, $|S|=p^m$ for some integer $m$.

Also notice that $H_i$ and $H_j$ intersect only in $\{e\}$ whenever $i\neq j$.

This leads to $p^m=(p-1)k+1$, giving $k=1+p+\cdots+p^{m-1}$.

So $k=1, 1+p,1+p+p^2,\ldots$, depending on the value of $m$.

Since it is given that $k>1$, we have $k\geq p+1$.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Oops, my bad. My proof was a variation of Wielandt's proof of the Sylow theorem that says the number of Sylow p subgroups is congruent to 1 mod p. I had forgotten that this proof actually shows the number of p subgroups of a given order is congruent to 1 mod p. (It is assumed that p divides the order of G.) So the problem is trivial from this result. My apologies.

(I had intended to give a hint by suggesting a search for Wielandt's proof. This search results in the full statement of the theorem.)
 

FAQ: At Least p+1 p-Subgroups in Finite Group G

What is a p-subgroup?

A p-subgroup is a subgroup of a finite group G whose order is a power of a prime number p.

What does "at least p+1" mean in this context?

In the context of "At Least p+1 p-Subgroups in Finite Group G", "at least p+1" means that there are at least p+1 distinct p-subgroups in the finite group G.

How do you prove the existence of at least p+1 p-subgroups in a finite group G?

This can be proven using Sylow's theorems, which state that if p^k is the highest power of a prime p that divides the order of a finite group G, then G has at least one subgroup of order p^k. By applying this theorem multiple times, we can prove the existence of at least p+1 distinct p-subgroups in G.

Why is the existence of at least p+1 p-subgroups important in finite group theory?

The existence of at least p+1 p-subgroups in a finite group G can provide important information about the structure and properties of G. It can also be used to prove other theorems and results in finite group theory.

Can a finite group have more than p+1 p-subgroups?

Yes, a finite group can have any number of p-subgroups as long as it is a multiple of p. However, the minimum number of p-subgroups a group can have is p+1.

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
759
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Back
Top