- #1
PFuser1232
- 479
- 20
Suppose a particle undergoing uniform circular motion completes a cycle, then ##<\vec{v}> = \frac{Δ\vec{r}}{Δt} = \vec{0}##. But then again, isn't it also the mean of the two velocity vectors at that point? And aren't those two velocity vectors equal? So if the velocity at that point were, say, ##\vec{v}_1##, then this would also be the average velocity. So which is it?