Ball Down a Ramp Help appreciated

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In summary, the problem involves a ball of mass 2.60 kg and radius 0.120 m being released from rest on an inclined plane at an angle of 36.0° with respect to the horizontal. The goal is to find the speed of the ball (in m/s) after it has rolled a distance of 1.90 m, assuming it rolls without slipping. The moment of inertia about its center of mass is given as 1.40×10-2 kg·m2. Using energy equations, the linear kinetic energy equation is used to find the constant c, which is then used to simplify the ΔKE equation to just a function of velocity. This allows for solving for the velocity, which is the
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Nfinley1
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Homework Statement


A ball of mass 2.60 kg and radius 0.120 m is released from rest on a plane inclined at an angle θ = 36.0° with respect to the horizontal. How fast is the ball moving (in m/s) after it has rolled a distance d=1.90 m? Assume that the ball rolls without slipping, and that its moment of inertia about its center of mass is 1.40×10-2 kg·m2.

Homework Equations


Given: I = 1.40×10-2 kg·m2.
Linear Acceleration = r*ω
KE = 0.5Iω^2
PE = MGH
μ=Tanθ

The Attempt at a Solution


Using the hypotenuse and the angle, I solved that the Height from the ground should be 1.12 m
Then, I decided to use energy equations to go about this.
ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω(final)^2 - 1/2*I*ω(initial)^2 Since it's not moving initially
ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω^2
Then Since I wanted to get linear acceleration I solved a=rω for omega and got ω=a/r

I plugged that into get an equation of ΔKE = 1/2*I*(a/r)^2. Although I've just realized my question prompts for a velocity not an acceleration, so I guess I can go back to
ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω^2

Then with ΔKE + ΔPE + ΔEThermal = 0

ΔPE = MGH final - MGH initial so 0 - MGH

1/2*I*ω^2 - MGH + ΔEThermal = 0

I know that μ should be equal to Tanθ after solving MGsinθ = μ *MGcosθ

Here's where I've kinda blanked out... I can't seem to figure out what to put for friction. As I know that exists because the ball is not slipping down the ramp

Help would be very much appreciated. Am I even headed in the correct direction?Edit: And I'm realizing now that this path leads me to an Imaginary number... so I've missed it somewhere.
 
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  • #2
You need to include linear KE. In this case, since the ball starts at rest:

ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω^2 + 1/2*m*v^2

It will be easier if you convert this equation to a function of v rather than ω.

If you continue with this energy approach, you can solve for the friction force afterwards.

If the ball was uniform, the moment of inertia for the ball would be (2/5)*m*r^2 = 0.014976 * kg * m^2, not 0.014000 * kg * m^2, but you should use the given 0.014000 * kg * m^2 value for this problem.
 
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  • #3
You don't need to worry about friction. There are no losses due to friction in rolling contact (no thermal energy produced).
rcgldr said:
You need to include linear KE. In this case, since the ball starts at rest:

ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω^2 + 1/2*m*v^2

It will be easier if you convert this equation to a function of v rather than ω.

If you continue with this energy approach, you can solve for the friction force afterwards.

If the ball was uniform, the moment of inertia for the ball would be (2/5)*m*r^2 = 0.014976 * kg * m^2, not 0.014000 * kg * m^2, but you should use the given 0.014000 * kg * m^2 value for this problem.
I agree with all the above, except that I don't think the question asks for the friction. But I don't see any reference to an impulse, or a string, or a spring:
rcgldr said:
After the impulse, angular momentun is conserved despite the spring. You should assume the impulse is instantaneous, so the string does not expand or shrink during the application of the impulse.
Was there something else in the OP, now edited out?
 
  • #4
Thanks for Helping

So then, now we have

1/2*Iω^2 + 1/2mv^2 - mgh + Δ Thermal Energy = 0

For change in thermal should I be using μ * N ? so Tanθ*Mgcosθ ? To get the energy from friction in this case.

It will be easier if you convert this equation to a function of v rather than ω.

This likely sounds dumb, but can you help me do this?

Or should I be solving for V with the linear kinetic energy equation?

I jumped into this course co-requisite with calculus, and while I can mostly do everything no problem, sometimes I just need somebody to call me an idiot and point me into the correct direction.
 
  • #5
Was there something else in the OP, now edited out?[/QUOTE]

Nope... that part sort of confused me, but I looked passed it as well.

I think the friction is only necessarily because without it the object would slip rather than roll.
Unless that's not correct?
 
  • #6
haruspex said:
I agree with all the above, except that I don't think the question asks for the friction. But I don't see any reference to an impulse, or a string, or a spring
Somehow an edit I made to another post in another thread ended up in my last post of this thread, and then I couldn't get back into physics forums for a while to correct this. Sorry for the confusion.

Nfinley1 said:
For change in thermal
You're supposed to assume static friction, not sliding friction and no other losses such as rolling resistance, so there is no change in thermal energy.

Nfinley1 said:
Or should I be solving for V with the linear kinetic energy equation?
Stick with the energy equation you have now. You can convert 1/2*I*ω^2 into c*m*v^2, where c is some constant, in this equation:

ΔKE = 1/2*I*ω^2 + 1/2*m*v^2 = c*m*v^2 + 1/2*m*v^2 = m*g*h

so that it's a just a function of velocity and proceed from there. It would have been nicer if the ball was uniform, since in that case the radius of the ball wouldn't matter.
 
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  • #7
How would I go about defining the constant then?
 
  • #8
rcgldr's c is just I/(2mr2) = 1.40×10-2 / (2*2.6*.122). The idea is just to make the equation a littler simpler. The important part is to replace ω by v/r so that v is the only unknown.
 
  • #9
So then I'd use (1/4X10^2)/(2*2.6*.122) in the place of C?
I see why that's important, I'm just working on how we did it? And what do we do with it now.

Thanks for being patient with me! :)Edit: I just used what you guys said to get down to the correct answer!

I can't thank you guys enough! I learned a lot!
 
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FAQ: Ball Down a Ramp Help appreciated

What is the purpose of a ball down a ramp experiment?

The purpose of a ball down a ramp experiment is to observe and measure the effects of gravity and motion on an object. This experiment can help us better understand the laws of physics and how they apply to real-world situations.

How do I set up a ball down a ramp experiment?

To set up a ball down a ramp experiment, you will need a ramp, a ball, a measuring tape, and a timer. Place the ramp at an angle and mark off intervals on the ramp using the measuring tape. Release the ball from the top of the ramp and use the timer to measure the time it takes for the ball to reach each interval.

What factors can affect the speed of a ball down a ramp?

The speed of a ball down a ramp can be affected by the angle of the ramp, the surface of the ramp, the weight and size of the ball, and the presence of any external forces such as air resistance or friction. These factors can either increase or decrease the speed of the ball.

How can I calculate the acceleration of the ball down the ramp?

To calculate the acceleration of the ball down the ramp, you can use the formula a = (vf - vi)/t, where a is acceleration, vf is the final velocity, vi is the initial velocity, and t is the time it takes for the ball to travel. You can measure the final and initial velocities using the distance the ball travels and the time it takes to travel that distance.

What are some real-life applications of a ball down a ramp experiment?

A ball down a ramp experiment can help us understand the motion of objects in everyday situations, such as the trajectory of a ball thrown or kicked, the movement of a car on a hill, or the descent of an object down a slope. It is also used in engineering and design to test the performance of various structures and devices.

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