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olliemath
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I'm currently studying Intro to Tensor Products of Banach Spaces by Ryan. In it he makes the off-hand remark
Is it? Does anyone know what this result is called, or where I can find a proof of it?
Cheers in advance - O
We recall that every Banach space is a quotient of [tex]l_1(I)[/tex] for some suitably chosen indexing set I.
Is it? Does anyone know what this result is called, or where I can find a proof of it?
Cheers in advance - O