- #1
Kajagoogooooooo
- 16
- 0
I don't understand why CP violation is insufficient to explain the observed baryon asymmetry?
in every article I find it says: "we know its insufficient..." without an explanation.
I will be glad for an explanation and for articles that deal with this issue.
And how do you solve it using the lepton sector?
Again articles that are talking about this issue will be great in addition to an explanation :)
in every article I find it says: "we know its insufficient..." without an explanation.
I will be glad for an explanation and for articles that deal with this issue.
And how do you solve it using the lepton sector?
Again articles that are talking about this issue will be great in addition to an explanation :)
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