- #1
fog37
- 1,569
- 108
Hello,
In the case of 2D vector spaces, every vector member of the vector space can be expressed as a linear combination of two independent vectors which together form a basis. There are infinitely many possible and valid bases, each containing two independent vectors (not necessarily orthogonal or orthonormal), that we can use. Vectors existing in a 3D vector space can use one out of the many and infinitely possible sets of 3 independent base vectors and so on...
When talking about linear operators and their eigenvectors, we learn that the set of eigenvectors (each eigenvector has its own eigenvalue) of an operator forms a base since the eigenvectors are independent vectors.
That means that the base formed by the eigenvectors of a certain linear operator is just one of those many, infinite possible bases, correct? In 2D, linear operators must therefore have only two eigenvectors (forming a 2D base) while in 3D linear operators can only have 3 eigenvectors and so... is that true?
If we considered a generic basis for a 2D vector space, would the vectors in that basis necessarily be the two eigenvectors of some linear operator? Or is that not necessarily true?
Thanks,
Fog37
In the case of 2D vector spaces, every vector member of the vector space can be expressed as a linear combination of two independent vectors which together form a basis. There are infinitely many possible and valid bases, each containing two independent vectors (not necessarily orthogonal or orthonormal), that we can use. Vectors existing in a 3D vector space can use one out of the many and infinitely possible sets of 3 independent base vectors and so on...
When talking about linear operators and their eigenvectors, we learn that the set of eigenvectors (each eigenvector has its own eigenvalue) of an operator forms a base since the eigenvectors are independent vectors.
That means that the base formed by the eigenvectors of a certain linear operator is just one of those many, infinite possible bases, correct? In 2D, linear operators must therefore have only two eigenvectors (forming a 2D base) while in 3D linear operators can only have 3 eigenvectors and so... is that true?
If we considered a generic basis for a 2D vector space, would the vectors in that basis necessarily be the two eigenvectors of some linear operator? Or is that not necessarily true?
Thanks,
Fog37