- #1
BWV
- 1,524
- 1,863
Trying to get my head around some basic points of measure theory
So rational numbers are dense in the reals. I.e., if
with
, then there exists an
such that
. It follows that there are then infinitely many such.
The Lebesgue measure of any single irrational (or rational number) is zero in ##\mathbb{R}## or ##\mathbb{Q}##
let x = an irrational number, say √2
Let s=set of rational numbers approximating x to i decimal places with i = [0,∞)
What is the Lebesgue measure m(s)?
also, if m(##\mathbb{R}##)>m(##\mathbb{Q}##), how do you account for the fact that ##\mathbb{Q}## is dense in ##\mathbb{R}##, i.e. for every irrational number, there are an infinite number of rational approximations (s above)?
So rational numbers are dense in the reals. I.e., if
The Lebesgue measure of any single irrational (or rational number) is zero in ##\mathbb{R}## or ##\mathbb{Q}##
let x = an irrational number, say √2
Let s=set of rational numbers approximating x to i decimal places with i = [0,∞)
What is the Lebesgue measure m(s)?
also, if m(##\mathbb{R}##)>m(##\mathbb{Q}##), how do you account for the fact that ##\mathbb{Q}## is dense in ##\mathbb{R}##, i.e. for every irrational number, there are an infinite number of rational approximations (s above)?