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Hi
I am asking, if I am trying to make inference using Bayes rule based on a prior probability that is a random variable by itself; is it sufficient to use the expected value of such probability or there are other details.
Thanks in advance.
I am asking, if I am trying to make inference using Bayes rule based on a prior probability that is a random variable by itself; is it sufficient to use the expected value of such probability or there are other details.
Thanks in advance.