- #1
tim1608
- 63
- 0
Hi Everyone.
This thread relates to the ongoing debate as to whether or not time has a beginning and other related debates.
As I see it, a beginning of time would imply the past existence of a very first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause. Who agrees and who disagrees with this implication?
How well is cause and effect understood?
It seems debatable as to whether or not quantum randomness truly exists but if it does then what are the implications of quantum randomness on cause and effect? For example, would quantum randomness mean that if the same initial conditions are repeatedly fed into a closed system influenced by quantum randomness then the same repeated outputs cannot be guaranteed?
Could it be argued that any system influenced by quantum randomness cannot be described as a closed system?
Could a first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause be the product of quantum randomness?
Would a first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause violate any known principles of physics? (For example, any conservation principles.)
How conclusively proven are the various conservation principles of physics?
Thank you very much.
Kind regards
Tim
This thread relates to the ongoing debate as to whether or not time has a beginning and other related debates.
As I see it, a beginning of time would imply the past existence of a very first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause. Who agrees and who disagrees with this implication?
How well is cause and effect understood?
It seems debatable as to whether or not quantum randomness truly exists but if it does then what are the implications of quantum randomness on cause and effect? For example, would quantum randomness mean that if the same initial conditions are repeatedly fed into a closed system influenced by quantum randomness then the same repeated outputs cannot be guaranteed?
Could it be argued that any system influenced by quantum randomness cannot be described as a closed system?
Could a first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause be the product of quantum randomness?
Would a first cause which was not the effect of a previous cause violate any known principles of physics? (For example, any conservation principles.)
How conclusively proven are the various conservation principles of physics?
Thank you very much.
Kind regards
Tim