- #1
soothsayer
- 423
- 5
Hi PF! I've been working on a research problem involving fluid dynamics, and I'm currently looking at a "bathtub flow". This is where water is draining through a hole, and we have a vortex. In a paper I have found dealing with this flow, the velocity potential was written as:
[itex]\psi = Alnr + B\phi [/itex]
which gives a velocity profile of:
[itex]\vec{v} = \frac{A}{r} \hat{r} + \frac{B}{r} \hat{\phi}[/itex]
But this doesn't make a lot of sense to me, because this gives [itex] \vec{\bigtriangledown} \times \vec{v} = 0 [/itex], but the flow should naturally have a vorticity, which means the curl should not be zero.
Ultimately, I want to be able to simplify the Euler equation into something like the Bernoulli Equation, but I've never seen a Bernoulli Equation for rotational flow. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I know for irrotational flow, [itex] \vec{\bigtriangledown} \times \vec{v} = 0 [/itex], we get:
[itex]\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}(\vec{\bigtriangledown} \psi )^2 + \frac{p}{\rho} + gz = f(t) [/itex]
Which I don't feel like I should be able to use for this situation...Thanks for any help!
[itex]\psi = Alnr + B\phi [/itex]
which gives a velocity profile of:
[itex]\vec{v} = \frac{A}{r} \hat{r} + \frac{B}{r} \hat{\phi}[/itex]
But this doesn't make a lot of sense to me, because this gives [itex] \vec{\bigtriangledown} \times \vec{v} = 0 [/itex], but the flow should naturally have a vorticity, which means the curl should not be zero.
Ultimately, I want to be able to simplify the Euler equation into something like the Bernoulli Equation, but I've never seen a Bernoulli Equation for rotational flow. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I know for irrotational flow, [itex] \vec{\bigtriangledown} \times \vec{v} = 0 [/itex], we get:
[itex]\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}(\vec{\bigtriangledown} \psi )^2 + \frac{p}{\rho} + gz = f(t) [/itex]
Which I don't feel like I should be able to use for this situation...Thanks for any help!