Binary operation on equivalence classes

In summary: However, in order to make sure that you understand what is happening, I might provide a more detailed explanation.
  • #1
PhysicsRock
119
18
Homework Statement
Given a set ##M## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##M##, for ##a,a^{\prime},b,b^{\prime} \in M## with ##a \sim a^{\prime}## and ##b \sim b^{\prime}## with a binary operation ##*## such that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## prove that a binary operation ##\overline{*}## exists that fulfills ##[x * y] = [x] \overline{*} [y]##.
Relevant Equations
None else.
So, my approach and solution are as follows:

$$

[x * y] = \{ z \in M : z \sim (x * y) \}

$$

Since we know that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## we can rewrite ##z## as ## x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} ##. Plugging this in yields:

$$

[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y \}

$$

We are also given that if ##x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y## then ##x^{\prime} \sim x## and ##y^{\prime} \sim y##. So once again, we can rewrite the expression to obtain:

$$
[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x, y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$

With ##x^{\prime}## and ##y^{\prime}## now essentially separated, we can break apart the set into two individual ones with

$$
[x*y] = \{ x^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x \} \bigcup \{ y^{\prime} \in M : y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$

Now one observes that the two sets are the equivalence classes for ##x## and ##y## respectively. So, we can conclude that

$$
[x*y] = [x] \cup [y]
$$

and comparing this to the assignment, we obtain that ##\overline{*}## is equivalent to the union of sets. Hence, there exists a binary operation fulfilling the required demands.

Now, am I correct here or did I screw up at some point?
 
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  • #2
PhysicsRock said:
Homework Statement:: Given a set ##M## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##M##, for ##a,a^{\prime},b,b^{\prime} \in M## with ##a \sim a^{\prime}## and ##b \sim b^{\prime}## with a binary operation ##*## such that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## prove that a binary operation ##\overline{*}## exists that fulfills ##[x * y] = [x] \overline{*} [y]##.
I wonder whether something has been lost in translation here. I suspect what you are asked to prove is that the binary operation defined by ##[x] \overline{*} [y] = [x * y]## is well-defined. In the sense that it doesn't matter which members of the equivalence classes ##[x]## and ##[y]## you choose, you get the same result.
PhysicsRock said:
$$

[x * y] = \{ z \in M : z \sim (x * y) \}

$$

Since we know that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## we can rewrite ##z## as ## x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} ##. Plugging this in yields:

$$

[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y \}

$$
This doesn't look right. Instead:
$$

[x * y] = \{ z: z \sim x * y \}

$$
PhysicsRock said:
$$
[x*y] = \{ x^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x \} \bigcup \{ y^{\prime} \in M : y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$
I don't understand what you are doing here.
PhysicsRock said:
Now one observes that the two sets are the equivalence classes for ##x## and ##y## respectively. So, we can conclude that

$$
[x*y] = [x] \cup [y]
$$

and comparing this to the assignment, we obtain that ##\overline{*}## is equivalent to the union of sets. Hence, there exists a binary operation fulfilling the required demands.

Now, am I correct here or did I screw up at some point?
I don't follow this either.
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
I wonder whether something has been lost in translation here. I suspect what you are asked to prove is that the binary operation defined by is well-defined. In the sense that it doesn't matter which members of the equivalence classes and you choose, you get the same result.
Yes, you are right. I quoted the statement from my memory and forgot the well-definedness. In that case, is it still recommendable to make use of set notation or should I retreat to use elements?

If it still makes sense, should I explain why I carried out certain steps you said you didn't understand?
 
  • #4
PhysicsRock said:
Yes, you are right. I quoted the statement from my memory and forgot the well-definedness. In that case, is it still recommendable to make use of set notation or should I retreat to use elements?

If it still makes sense, should I explain why I carried out certain steps you said you didn't understand?
The result should follow quite quickly from what you are given.
 
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