- #1
juantheron
- 247
- 1
for a non nagative integer $n$, If $\displaystyle I_{n}=\int_{0}^{1}\binom{x}{n}dx$, then $I_{n}=$
where $\displaystyle \binom{n}{r} = \frac{n!}{r!.(n-r)!}$
where $\displaystyle \binom{n}{r} = \frac{n!}{r!.(n-r)!}$