- #1
thegirl
- 41
- 1
Hi,
Does anyone know why k has to be real in an infinite system for bloch's theorem. I understand that the wavefunction becomes unphysical in an infinite system as it diverges. Why does that mean k has to be real?
f(x)=u(x)exp(ikx)
Does anyone know why k has to be real in an infinite system for bloch's theorem. I understand that the wavefunction becomes unphysical in an infinite system as it diverges. Why does that mean k has to be real?
f(x)=u(x)exp(ikx)