- #1
eljose
- 492
- 0
Let,s take the solution of the wave function Phi=R(x,t)Exp(Is/hbar) then if we redefine the Phi solution by Phi=Exp(iS1/hbar) wiht S1=s+(hbar/i)lnR(x,t)
then p[phi>=(dS1/dx)[Phi> so we would have that apply the operator P to our wave function [phi> is the same as the classical momentum obtained from the action S1 multiplied by Phi,w ealso would have the Hamiltonian H1 with H1=H-(hbar/i)dR/dt.(1/R) so we could generalize Bohmian mechanics to a mechanic of complex trajectories.
then p[phi>=(dS1/dx)[Phi> so we would have that apply the operator P to our wave function [phi> is the same as the classical momentum obtained from the action S1 multiplied by Phi,w ealso would have the Hamiltonian H1 with H1=H-(hbar/i)dR/dt.(1/R) so we could generalize Bohmian mechanics to a mechanic of complex trajectories.