- #1
AxiomOfChoice
- 533
- 1
I'm trying to show that a function [itex]f(z)[/itex] is analytic by showing [itex]f'(z)[/itex] exists. But [itex]f(z)[/itex] is defined in terms of a contour integral:
[tex]
f(z) = \oint_{|\zeta - z_0| = r} g(z,\zeta) d\zeta.
[/tex]
Since the integral is being carried out with respect to [itex]\zeta[/itex] and not [itex]z[/itex], am I allowed to bring the [itex]d/dz[/itex] operator inside the integral? Or is it more complicated than that? Are there certain conditions that [itex]g(z,\zeta)[/itex] must satisfy? If so, what are they?
THANKS!
[tex]
f(z) = \oint_{|\zeta - z_0| = r} g(z,\zeta) d\zeta.
[/tex]
Since the integral is being carried out with respect to [itex]\zeta[/itex] and not [itex]z[/itex], am I allowed to bring the [itex]d/dz[/itex] operator inside the integral? Or is it more complicated than that? Are there certain conditions that [itex]g(z,\zeta)[/itex] must satisfy? If so, what are they?
THANKS!