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samalkhaiat said:My reasoning was based on the premiss that the particle IS a FREE particle.
This linear combination DOES NOT represent a FREE PARTICLE:
1)free particles do not just flip the sign of their momenta.
2) it can be made proportional to [itex]\sin ( p x )[/itex] which is not a free particle wavefunction. So to restrict the solutions of [itex]P^{ 2 } \psi = p^{ 2 } \psi[/itex] to a free particle, you should set [itex]b = 0[/itex] or [itex]a = 0[/itex].
The main issue regarding the particle in the box is the following: Inside the box, the particle is never a free particle.
I do not understand what you mean. Also for a free particle (a special case for a particle in a finite potential, namely [itex]V=0[/itex] by the way) the two generalized momentum eigenfunctions are [itex]u_{p}[/itex] and [itex]u_{-p}[/itex] both are eigenfunctions of [itex]\hat{p}^2=-\partial_x^2[/itex] and so is any linear combination. Any non-trivial linear combination is, however, obviously not a generalized eigenfunction of [itex]\hat{p}[/itex], which disproves your claim that any eigenfunction of [itex]\hat{p}^2[/itex] must be also one of [itex]\hat{p}[/itex]. The other way is right, i.e., any eigenfunction of [itex]\hat{p}[/itex] is also an eigenfunction of any operator that is a function of [itex]\hat{p}[/itex].