- #1
PFuser1232
- 479
- 20
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcI/LimitsAtInfinityI.aspx
According to the author, if ##c## is a real number and ##r## is a positive rational number then:
$$\lim_{x →\infty} \frac{c}{x^r} = 0$$
If ##x^r## is defined for ##x < 0## then:
$$\lim_{x →- \infty} \frac{c}{x^r} = 0$$
I understand why ##r## can't be irrational in case two. ##x^r## would not be defined.
However, I can't see why ##r## can't be irrational in case one.
According to the author, if ##c## is a real number and ##r## is a positive rational number then:
$$\lim_{x →\infty} \frac{c}{x^r} = 0$$
If ##x^r## is defined for ##x < 0## then:
$$\lim_{x →- \infty} \frac{c}{x^r} = 0$$
I understand why ##r## can't be irrational in case two. ##x^r## would not be defined.
However, I can't see why ##r## can't be irrational in case one.